Talk:Casta

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Recent edits by anonymous IP

Following on the discussion above between, it seems the specialist academic consensus now is that the caste system did not exist and that it is an erroneous historical concept. I don't see a case for arguing the sentence referring to it as a "discredited concept" as being "an unsourced intepretation" by past editors. It is, if anything, a more subtle way of saying what sources themselves are saying - that it is simply wrong. I have found a couple of more sources on this debate which may be relevant, which can be shared on the continuation of this discussion. One of them, a recent Mexican source, claims that although Gonzalbo is right in saying there was no Caste system, there was nevertheless in the 18th century a Caste narrative. Ivan evlogiev (talk) 11:41, 19 July 2022 (UTC)[reply]

Right but to make such a claim, you must have a quantified, verified amount of studies to support that this new narrative is the consensus. Meanwhile, there are still professors at the UNAM and other universities who’ve written about institutionalized discrimination regardless of the concept lacking a proper term to designate such discrimination. Ergo, I do not believe it is “the consensus” quite yet. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 2603:8082:4A40:15:58E9:E20F:867B:8F23 (talk) 23:10, 26 June 2023 (UTC)[reply]

Hi. This concept is fake. The Spanish territories never had a racist classification model. The introduction of the racial way of thinking was made by the French Bourbons and the illustration influence they brought to Spain and its territories starting in the XVIII century, but they were never fully accepted by the population as the majority did not match in a single race classification as the Hispanic citizens have been and were completely mixed between natives, blacks and Spanish Europeans contrary to the rest of Europeans or British that did not mix. The blacks and natives were humans as the rest of subjects of the crown and could marry between blacks, whites, natives no limits.

There are examples for you to see that the Hispanic model wasn’t based on race: Teresa Juliana de Santo Domingo, San Martín de Porres, beatriz de palacios, Juan garrido, Estevanico, Juan de Villanueva, Beatriz de Palacios, Juan Valiente, Juan Beltrán, Pedro Fulupo, Juan Bardales, Antonio Pérez, Gomez de Leon, Leonor Galiano, Juan Garcia 194.38.172.194 (talk) 07:42, 26 July 2023 (UTC)[reply]

Juan Latino is another example being the first black African who studied at a European university and who reached a professorship 194.38.172.194 (talk) 14:31, 26 July 2023 (UTC)[reply]

I arrived at this article as a result of reading about Francisco de Miranda. His father was forced to prove his pure bloodline, but even then he faced discrimination for his non-Spanish origin. Whether you call it a caste system, a class system, or an old boys club, makes no difference. Humpster (talk) 06:46, 31 January 2024 (UTC)[reply]

It wasn't discrimination for "non-Spanish" origin Humpster. Spaniards in Spain were subject to the same requirements and many - perhaps most - did not meet them. You are mistaking the Statutes of Limpieza de Sangre with the supposed Caste System. 91.167.249.45 (talk) 00:01, 5 March 2024 (UTC)[reply]

No mistake. Call it "purity of blood" if you like. A pecking order certainly existed. Humpster (talk) 03:10, 5 March 2024 (UTC)[reply]

Not really. Peruvian indigenous nobility were also declared "pure of blood old christians", so the racial component is questionable to say the least. 203.7.11.228 (talk) 12:02, 29 March 2024 (UTC)[reply]

Wiki Education assignment: ARH 371_The TransAtlantic_Cross-Cultural Representations

This article was the subject of a Wiki Education Foundation-supported course assignment, between 9 January 2024 and 2 May 2024. Further details are available on the course page. Student editor(s): Naviarfoster (article contribs).

— Assignment last updated by Naviarfoster (talk) 21:22, 12 February 2024 (UTC)[reply]